Anonymous Iran

Coop

Hope this is the right place for this question.

I wonder about the following: if my English translation of the Article/Paragraph 27 of The Constitution of the Islamic Republic of Iran is correct, it cites:

- "Organizing of meetings and demonstrations without carrying weapons is free, provided these do not injure the Islamic principles".

In the speech of the Supreme Leader Khamenei, during the last-Friday's prayer, he declared protests for "illegal", yet did not cite any kind of injury to the Islamic principles they might represent.

Furthermore, reading the Constitution, there stands nothing about his right to declare protests for "illegal".

So, what is the legal basis for his handling?

And, if there is none, then how can any kind of authority in Iran (particularly the police, not to talk about the IRGC/Basij), exercise violence against peaceful protesters?

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Remember Neda!

Unregistered

Perhaps this is why? Remember, these religious principles can be interpreted in so many ways...

Also, let's not forget that the countries from the Soviet block signed the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and their constitutions also reflected that. They were not respected in practice.

Unregistered

Could be, but at least I heard no corresponding statements from Iranian leadership.

It's not that "surprising" they ignore their own laws (even the very constitution). But, I wonder, why the media and foreign politicians don't insist on this?

They should inform protesters about their rights too.